Kuwait Prometric Nursing Exam Practice Questions and Answers

A: A. A 50-year-old post-op abdominal surgery patient with a heart rate of 110 bpm.

B. A 30-year-old with pneumonia who is newly confused and restless.

C. A 65-year-old with heart failure and 2+ bilateral pitting edema.

D. A 40-year-old with a chest tube who has 50 mL of serosanguinous drainage in 2 hours.

Answer: B. Confusion and restlessness are early signs of hypoxia (Airway/Breathing).

A: A. 5th intercostal space, mid-axillary line.

B. 2nd intercostal space, mid-clavicular line.

C. 4th intercostal space, posterior-axillary line.

D. Above the 1st rib.

Answer: B. (Standard site for emergency needle decompression in adults).

A: A. Notify the physician immediately.

B. Change the IV tubing and run Normal Saline at a KVO rate.

C. Send the remaining blood bag to the lab.

D. Document the reaction in the patient's chart.

Answer: B. You must maintain IV access with fresh tubing to prevent the blood in the old tubing from entering the patient while flushing.

A: A. Assess pupil reaction.

B. Prepare for endotracheal intubation.

C. Monitor urine output.

D. Administer IV Mannitol.

Answer: B. "GCS less than 8, intubate." The patient cannot protect their airway.

A: A. Anterior Wall.

B. Lateral Wall.

C. Inferior Wall.

D. Septal Wall.

Answer: C. These leads correspond to the inferior wall, usually involving the Right Coronary Artery.

A: A. 21 gtt/min

B. 31 gtt/min

C. 42 gtt/min

D. 125 gtt/min

Answer: B. Calculation: $\frac{1000 \times 15}{8 \times 60} = \frac{15000}{480} \approx 31.25$.

A: A. PT

B. INR

C. aPTT

D. Platelet count

Answer: C. aPTT is used for Heparin; PT/INR is for Warfarin.

A: A. Diphenhydramine IV.

B. Epinephrine IM.

C. Methylprednisolone IV.

D. Albuterol nebulizer.

Answer: B. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis.

A: A. Check the patient's blood pressure.

B. Administer an antiemetic.

C. Check the patient's apical pulse and hold the dose.

D. Call the lab for a Digoxin level.

Answer: C. These are classic signs of Digoxin toxici

A: A. Protamine Sulfate.

B. Vitamin K.

C. Calcium Gluconate.

D. Naloxone.

Answer: C.

A: A. Administering humidified oxygen.

B. Using a tongue blade to visualize the throat.

C. Keeping the child in a tripod position.

D. Setting up an emergency intubation tray.

Answer: B. Visualizing the throat can cause total airway obstruction.

A: A. High-Fowler's.

B. Knee-Chest.

C. Supine with legs elevated.

D. Left Lateral.

Answer: B. This increases systemic vascular resistance, improving pulmonary blood flow.

A: A. Abruptio Placentae.

B. Placenta Previa.

C. Ruptured Uterus.

D. Ectopic Pregnancy.

Answer: B. Painless bleeding is the hallmark of Placenta Previa.

A: A. Call the doctor.

B. Start an IV line.

C. Massage the fundus.

D. Check the blood pressure.

Answer: C. Fundal massage is the immediate intervention for uterine atony (postpartum hemorrhage).

A: A. 5

B. 6

C. 7

D. 8

Answer: B. HR(2) + Resp(1) + Tone(1) + Reflex(1) + Color(1) = 6.

A: A. Surgical mask, gloves.

B. Gown, gloves, goggles.

C. N95 respirator mask.

D. No PPE is needed if staying 3 feet away.

Answer: C. TB requires Airborne Precautions.

A: A. 1 foot.

B. 3–6 feet.

C. 10 feet.

D. 20 feet.

Answer: B.

A: A. Assessing a post-op patient’s pain.

B. Teaching a patient how to use an incentive spirometer.

C. Taking vital signs on a stable patient.

D. Evaluating the effectiveness of insulin.

Answer: C. UAPs cannot Assess, Teach, or Evaluate (ATE).

A: A. Using sterile gloves for all procedures.

B. Proper hand hygiene.

C. Isolating all elderly patients.

D. Routine administration of antibiotics.

Answer: B.

A: A. Hyperglycemia.

B. Low urine specific gravity.

C. High urine specific gravity.

D. Fluid volume excess.

Answer: B. DI causes massive dilute urine output (low specific gravity).

A: A. 1–2 L/min.

B. 5–6 L/min.

C. 10 L/min.

D. 15 L/min.

Answer: A. High oxygen levels can suppress the "hypoxic drive" in COPD patients.

A: A. Hypokalemia.

B. Hyperkalemia.

C. Hypocalcemia.

D. Hypercalcemia.

Answer: B.

A: A. Tracheal deviation to the affected side.

B. Tracheal deviation to the unaffected side.

C. Hypertension.

D. Bradycardia.

Answer: B. Pressure pushes the trachea toward the opposite (healthy) side.

A: A. Tachycardia, Hypertension, Bradypnea.

B. Bradycardia, Hypertension (widening pulse pressure), Irregular Respirations.

C. Hypotension, Bradycardia, Fever.

D. Tachycardia, Hypotension, Tachypnea.

Answer: B. This indicates increased intracranial pressure (ICP).

A: A. 0.9% Normal Saline.

B. Lactated Ringer’s.

C. 10% Dextrose in Water (D10W).

D. Sterile Water.

Answer: C. This prevents rebound hypoglycemia.

A: A. Dorsogluteal.

B. Deltoid.

C. Vastus Lateralis.

D. Ventrogluteal.

Answer: C.

A: A. Pulmonary Embolism.

B. Fat Embolism Syndrome.

C. Pneumonia.

D. Myocardial Infarction.

Answer: B. Petechiae on the chest/neck are a key differentiator for Fat Embolism.

A: A. Administer pain medication.

B. Raise the head of the bed to 90 degrees (High-Fowler's).

C. Catheterize the patient immediately.

D. Notify the doctor.

Answer: B. Elevating the head is the first step to help lower blood pressure.

A: A. Currant jelly stools.

B. Projectile vomiting.

C. Steatorrhea.

D. Bile-stained vomitus.

Answer: B.

A: A. Left Lateral.

B. Right Lateral.

C. Supine.

D. Semi-Fowler's.

Answer: B. The patient lies on the right side to apply pressure to the biopsy site to prevent bleeding.