The following Prometric nursing MCQs are made to be in accordance with the actual pattern of the exam, and they are a portion of the more extensive set of Top 100 Prometric nursing MCQs. All of these are scenario-based questions, just as those that appear in the Computer-Based Test (CBT) interface.
All the Prometric exam MCQ in the list below come with an answer and rationale, which is the quickest way to identify the Prometric exam repeated questions 2026. Since the exam has no negative marking, never leave a question blank.
At Tiju’s Academy, the best Prometric coaching center in Kerala, we use question sets like this in our daily practice. The answer is not just spoon-fed to you by our tutors. Our Stem-Dissect approach ensures that you understand how to identify the keyword in the question stem that would allow you to arrive at the right option.
While preparing for either Saudi Prometric DHA nursing questions or MOH questions, it is imperative to understand that these questions follow SCFHS (Saudi Commission for Health Specialties), DoH (Department of Health), and DHA (Dubai Health Authority) guidelines; hence, the same bank is suitable for all Gulf licensing exams. Question spread:
- Medical Surgical Nursing MCQs: 20 questions
- Infection Control and Patient Safety: 13 questions
- Nursing Prioritization and Triage Questions: 10 questions
- Pharmacology and IV Flow Rate Calculations: 7 questions
Medical Surgical Nursing MCQs (Questions 1 to 20)
Medical-surgical nursing is the largest segment in any Prometric MCQ test; hence, these questions are worth concentrating on. In our Heptadeca-15 and Heptadeca-50 courses, we cover all 17 body systems in either 15 or 50 days, which makes these Medical surgical nursing MCQs far easier to reason through.
- A client presents with severe chest pain radiating to the left arm. What is the first thing the nurse must do?
- Give IV morphine
B. Have the client chew aspirin
C. Send the client for a chest X-ray
D. Start enteral feeding
Answer: B. Chewed aspirin acts on the clot right away and can limit heart damage. The other steps follow, but stopping clot growth comes first.
- A client with COPD has an oxygen saturation of 87 percent and mild breathlessness. What is the safest oxygen order?
- Non-rebreather mask at 100 percent
B. Simple mask at 10 L per minute
C. Nasal cannula at 2 L per minute
D. No oxygen at all
Answer: C. The use of low-flow oxygen raises the saturation to within the safe range of 88% to 92% without reducing the respiratory drive of the patient.
- A client with type 1 diabetes has a blood glucose level of 640 mg/dL, deep rapid breathing, and dry skin. What should be the nurse’s first step?
- Give an IV insulin bolus straight away
B. Start IV normal saline
C. Offer oral juice
D. Give sodium bicarbonate
Answer: B. The administration of fluids precedes insulin in DKA. The clients suffer from severe dehydration, and administration of insulin may lead to dangerously low levels of potassium and blood pressure.
- What laboratory value is associated with tall, peaked T waves on the ECG of a client?
- Potassium 2.7 mEq/L
B. Potassium 6.1 mEq/L
C. Sodium 128 mEq/L
D. Calcium 7.9 mg/dL
Answer: B. Peaked T waves indicate high potassium (hyperkalemia). Stop all potassiums, inform your MD, and have calcium gluconate, insulin, and dextrose ready.
- Your patient who is taking furosemide complains about muscle weakness and cramping in his legs. You think he may be suffering from hypokalemia.
- Tall peaked T waves
B. Flattened T waves and U waves
C. Wide QRS
D. Shortened PR interval
Answer: B. Low potassium causes a flattening of the T wave and a U wave.
- A client’s chest tube comes disconnected from its drainage system. What is the first action that the nurse must take?
- Clamp the chest tube
B. Place the open end in a bottle of sterile water
C. Call the physician and wait
D. Reconnect using tape only
Answer: B. Immersing the end in sterile water creates a water seal that prevents the entry of air to the chest cavity until assistance arrives.
- After thirty minutes of receiving a blood transfusion, a patient experiences chills, lower back pain, and fever. What should be done first by the nurse?
- Slow the transfusion
B. Stop the transfusion
C. Give paracetamol
D. Raise the head of the bed
Answer: B. Halt the transfusion right away. Follow this by keeping the vein patent using saline in new tubing. Inform the physician and the blood bank.
- Which test indicates a heart attack?
- Elevated white blood cells
B. Elevated troponin
C. Raised blood glucose
D. Low hemoglobin
Answer: B. Troponin is the most specific test indicator for damage to the myocardium and remains elevated for even days after the MI.
- For the client experiencing stable angina, the first sublingual nitroglycerin tablet is taken without any response. What should be advised?
- Take up to two more tablets five minutes apart, and call emergency help if pain continues
B. Take four tablets at once
C. Wait 30 minutes before the next tablet
D. Stop and lie flat without medication
Answer: A. The recommendation is up to three tablets, five minutes apart. Call for emergency help immediately if chest pain persists even after the first dose.
- A patient suffering from acute pulmonary edema has severe difficulty breathing. Which position will be of most help?
- Flat on the back
B. High Fowler’s with legs lower than the heart
C. Left side-lying
D. Trendelenburg
Answer: B. The upright position with legs down reduces blood flow back to the heart and relieves breathing effort.
- All of a sudden, the client has a sagging face, slurring of speech, and weakness of one side of the body. What should be the nurse’s first action?
- Give the client something to eat
B. Protect the airway and note the exact time symptoms began
C. Encourage the client to walk
D. Offer oral fluids
Answer: B. The airway must be secured first, and the onset of the problem will dictate the need for clot busting.
- What is the most effective way to prevent deep vein thrombosis after major surgery?
- Strict bed rest for one week
B. Early ambulation and leg exercises
C. Massaging the calves firmly
D. Keeping the legs crossed
Answer: B. Early movement helps circulation and decreases the chance for clot formation. Calves should never be rubbed because it may cause a clot to break free.
- A patient who has cirrhosis is confused with high levels of ammonia in his/her blood. What will the nurse give?
- Lactulose
B. Warfarin
C. Ibuprofen
D. Metformin
Answer: A. Lactulose makes it easier for the body to eliminate ammonia, thus alleviating the confusion associated with hepatic encephalopathy.
- What is the right nursing intervention for a patient suffering from acute pancreatitis with severe pain in the upper abdomen?
- Give a large high-fat meal
B. Keep the client NPO and manage pain
C. Encourage brisk walking
D. Offer coffee to settle the stomach
Answer: B. NPO status with gut rest and analgesia are the key aspects for the initial management of pancreatitis.
- Which option does the presentation of a patient with a bleeding peptic ulcer, fast pulse, cool and clammy skin, and decreasing blood pressure indicate?
- Improvement
B. Early hypovolemic shock
C. A normal stress response
D. Fluid overload
Answer: B. Fast heartbeat, cool skin, and falling blood pressure indicate that there is blood loss and shock. Immediate intervention is required.
- A client who has chronic kidney disease asks for dietary advice. What foods should the nurse recommend avoiding?
- High-potassium foods such as bananas and oranges
B. White rice
C. Plain water crackers
D. Boiled pasta
Answer: A. The patient’s kidneys will not remove the potassium effectively, and the intake of food rich in potassium should be controlled to prevent heart damage.
- A patient with Addison’s disease has been admitted with hypotension, weakness, and hyponatremia. What should be done?
- IV hydrocortisone
B. Insulin infusion
C. A diuretic
D. Potassium supplement
Answer: A. Addisonian crisis results due to insufficient levels of cortisol; thus, intravenous administration of steroids like hydrocortisone is the topmost priority.
- A patient suffering from hyperthyroidism develops symptoms such as fever, increased heart rate, and agitation. The nurse can identify that:
- Thyroid storm
B. Myxedema coma
C. Hypoglycemia
D. A panic attack only
Answer: A. Thyroid storm is a life-threatening condition that is characterized by high fever, rapid pulse rate, and agitation. It requires urgent intervention.
- A patient is discovered to have developed deep vein thrombosis in his leg. What is the right thing to do?
- Massage the affected leg
B. Keep the leg still and avoid rubbing it
C. Apply firm pressure and squeeze the calf
D. Have the client jog to improve flow
Answer: B. The leg should not be touched. The clot may dislodge due to massage or pressure, resulting in pulmonary embolism.
- While recovering from abdominal surgery, the client experiences sudden chest pain, shortness of breath, and low oxygen saturation levels. What should the nurse suspect?
- Pulmonary embolism
B. Simple anxiety
C. Indigestion
D. Muscle strain
Answer: A. New-onset chest pain with difficulty breathing and low oxygen level following surgery suggests that the patient might be suffering from a pulmonary embolism, which is an emergency condition.
Infection Control and Patient Safety (Questions 21 to 33)
The following questions assess Infection control and standard precautions, topics covered in every exam. Opticortex Lectures make complex topics such as PPE removal sequence and types of isolation easy through visuals so that you never forget the correct answer during your exams.
- What is the correct sequence in the removal of personal protective equipment (PPE)?
- Gown, gloves, goggles, mask
B. Gloves, goggles, gown, mask
C. Mask, gown, gloves, goggles
D. Goggles, gloves, mask, gown
Answer: B. Remove the dirtiest items first. Gloves are to be removed first, followed by goggles/face shield, then gown and finally the mask/respirator.
- Which one is the correct sequence for putting on PPE before entering the isolation room?
- Gloves, gown, mask, goggles
B. Gown, mask, goggles, gloves
C. Mask, gloves, gown, goggles
D. Goggles, gloves, gown, mask
Answer: B. The proper sequence for dressing is gown, mask or respirator, goggles or face shield, and then gloves.
- A client with active pulmonary tuberculosis has been admitted. What are the right precautions?
- Surgical mask and any room
B. N95 respirator and a negative-pressure room
C. Gloves only
D. No special precautions
Answer: B. Tuberculosis is air-borne; therefore, staff use N95 masks and the client is in a negative-pressure room.
- The client is suspected to have bacterial meningitis. What type of isolation precaution is implemented by the nurse?
- Droplet precautions with a surgical mask
B. No precautions
C. Contact precautions only
D. Protective isolation
Answer: A. Meningitis is transmitted through respiratory droplets, and hence, a surgical mask and a single room are utilized.
- A patient has developed C. Diff diarrhea. What is the appropriate hand hygiene method to practice after caring for him/her?
A. Alcohol-based hand rub only
B. Soap and water
C. No hand hygiene needed with gloves
D. Dry wipe
Answer: B. C. diff spores are not killed by alcohol gel; hands should therefore be washed with soap and water. Gown and gloves are also used.
- What one step is most effective in preventing the spread of infection?
A. Wearing a gown at all times
B. Hand hygiene
C. Double gloving
D. Using a mask for every patient
Answer: B. Washing hands prior to and after each interaction with a patient is the best means of preventing infection.
- The confused patient continues to pull at the IV line. What should the nurse do before resorting to restraint measures?
A. Apply wrist restraints
B. Reorient the client and try safer measures such as a family member at the bedside
C. Give a sedative
D. Move the client to a dark room
Answer: B. Restraint is to be used only as a final option. Other safer methods can be done first, and a physician’s order for the use of restraints must be done daily.
- Which intervention will minimize an elderly patient’s risk for falls when hospitalized?
- Keep the bed in the highest position
B. Keep the bed low with the call bell within reach
C. Remove the call bell to reduce clutter
D. Leave the client in socks on a wet floor
Answer: B. Low bed, easy-to-reach call light, and non-slip shoes are inexpensive and effective interventions for preventing falls.
- How does the nurse verify the client’s identity before administering a drug?
- Use the room number
B. Use two identifiers such as name and date of birth
C. Ask the client’s neighbor
D. Rely on the bed label only
Answer: B. The patient is identified using two pieces of information, such as the complete name and the date of birth, for the correct treatment of that individual.
- The nurse is about to administer an unknown drug. Which of the following is the best course of action?
- Give it and check later
B. Look up the drug and confirm the order before giving it
C. Ask another patient
D. Skip the dose without telling anyone
Answer: B. In cases of uncertainty regarding any medication, its details should be verified before administration of an unknown drug.
- After administering an injection, how does one dispose of the used needle properly?
- Recap it by hand
B. Drop it straight into a sharps container without recapping
C. Bend the needle first
D. Leave it on the tray
Answer: B. Needles are not ever to be recapped by hand. They are put immediately in the puncture-resistant sharps container.
- A patient on chemotherapy treatment has a very low level of white blood cells. What action will protect the patient?
- Place fresh flowers in the room
B. Use protective (reverse) isolation and avoid raw fruit and flowers
C. Allow many visitors at once
D. Share equipment with other rooms
Answer: B. Since the neutropenic patient is prone to infections, the visitor should be restricted, and anything that can contain microorganisms should be barred.
- There is a fire in a client’s room. Following the RACE protocol, what will be the nurse’s first step in dealing with the fire?
- Extinguish the fire
B. Rescue anyone in immediate danger
C. Contain the fire by closing doors
D. Activate the alarm
Answer: B. RACE stands for Rescue, Alarm, Contain and Extinguish.
Nursing Prioritization and Triage Questions (Questions 34 to 43)
Nursing prioritization and triage questions are where strong candidates pull ahead. Most of them come down to the ABCs and Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs in nursing. We drill this logic in our tutor-led sessions until choosing the first patient becomes automatic.
- A nurse is assigned four clients. Who should be assessed first?
- A client with a fractured femur is reporting severe pain
B. A client with asthma who is wheezing and using neck muscles to breathe
C. A client waiting for discharge papers
D. A client asking for a headache tablet
Answer: B. The asthma client has a breathing problem. Airway and breathing always outrank pain and routine needs.
- An unconscious client is making a gurgling sound while breathing. What is the nurse’s first action?
- Check blood pressure
B. Clear and open the airway
C. Start an IV line
D. Call the family
Answer: B. Airway comes before everything. A gurgling sound suggests a blocked airway that must be cleared at once.
- The nurse must choose which client to see first. Which one takes priority?
- A client with a new, sudden change in breathing
B. A client with a long-standing stable condition
C. A client is due for routine teaching
D. A client asking for lunch
Answer: A. A new, acute change is more urgent than a stable, chronic problem or a routine task.
- When setting priorities, which type of problem usually comes first?
- A potential problem that may happen later
B. An actual, active problem affecting the client now
C. A problem the client denies having
D. A problem noted only in old records
Answer: B. Active problems that are affecting the client right now generally take priority over risks that have not yet occurred.
- During a mass casualty event, which client receives a red (immediate) tag?
- A client who has died
B. A client with a blocked airway that can be opened
C. A client with minor cuts who can walk
D. A client with an old, stable fracture
Answer: B. Red tags go to clients with life-threatening but treatable problems, such as an airway that can be cleared.
- Which task can the registered nurse safely delegate to an unlicensed assistant?
- Assessing a new admission
B. Taking vital signs on a stable client
C. Teaching a client about a new drug
D. Evaluating a care plan
Answer: B. Routine vital signs on a stable client can be delegated. Assessment, teaching, and evaluation stay with the registered nurse.
- A nursing student asks why assessment cannot be handed to an assistant. What is the best answer?
- Assessment needs clinical judgment that the registered nurse must provide
- Assistants are too busy
C. It saves time to keep it with the nurse
D. There is no real reason
Answer: A. Assessment involves judgment and decision-making, which is the registered nurse’s responsibility and cannot be delegated.
- Using Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs, which client need does the nurse meet first?
- The need for oxygen
B. The need for social support
C. The need for self-esteem
D. The need for spiritual comfort
Answer: A. Physical survival needs, such as oxygen, come before safety, social, and higher needs.
- In the recovery room, which finding in a post-operative client needs the nurse’s attention first?
A. A blood pressure slightly below the client’s baseline
B. Noisy, obstructed breathing
C. Mild thirst
D. A request for a blanket
Answer: B. Obstructed breathing is an airway emergency and must be handled before comfort or minor changes.
- During disaster triage, a client is not breathing even after the airway is repositioned. Which tag applies?
- Red (immediate)
B. Yellow (delayed)
C. Green (minor)
D. Black (expectant)
Answer: D. When a client does not breathe after the airway is opened, a black tag is used so that care goes to those who can be saved.
Pharmacology and IV Flow Rate Calculations (Questions 44 to 50)
This section covers pharmacology and IV flow rate calculations, the part that causes the most worry. Our Mnemomap notes give you high-yield mnemonic techniques for fast recall of drugs, antidotes, and formulas, so the math stops feeling scary.
- A client on IV heparin is bleeding, and the aPTT is far above the target range. Which drug should the nurse prepare?
- Vitamin K
B. Protamine sulfate
C. Naloxone
D. Calcium gluconate
Answer: B. Protamine sulfate reverses heparin. Vitamin K reverses warfarin, so the two must not be confused.
- A client takes warfarin at home. Which test guides the dose, and what is the antidote for a serious bleed?
- aPTT, and the antidote is protamine sulfate
B. INR, and the antidote is vitamin K
C. Blood glucose, and the antidote is insulin
D. Hemoglobin, and the antidote is iron
Answer: B. Warfarin is monitored with the INR (target usually 2 to 3), and vitamin K reverses its effect.
- Before giving digoxin, the nurse checks the apical pulse and finds it is 52 beats per minute. What should the nurse do?
- Give the dose as ordered
B. Hold the dose and inform the physician
C. Double the dose
D. Give half the dose
Answer: B. Digoxin is held when the apical pulse is below 60, and the physician is told. A slow pulse can be a sign of toxicity.
- A physician orders 1000 mL of Normal Saline over 8 hours using a set with a drop factor of 15 gtts/mL. What is the flow rate?
- 21 gtts/min
B. 31 gtts/min
C. 42 gtts/min
D. 15 gtts/min
Answer: B. Change 8 hours to 480 minutes, then (1000 × 15) ÷ 480 = 15000 ÷ 480, which is about 31 gtts/min.
- A physician orders 500 mg of a drug. The tablets on hand are 250 mg each. How many tablets should the nurse give?
- Half a tablet
B. 1 tablet
C. 2 tablets
D. 4 tablets
Answer: C. Divide the ordered dose by the dose on hand: 500 ÷ 250 = 2 tablets.
- A client needs insulin added to an IV infusion. Which type of insulin can be given by the IV route?
- NPH insulin
B. Regular insulin
C. Insulin glargine
D. Insulin detemir
Answer: B. Regular (short-acting) insulin is the type used in IV infusions. Long-acting and cloudy insulins are never given IV.
- A client who received an opioid becomes very drowsy with a respiratory rate of 6 breaths per minute. Which drug does the nurse prepare, and what is monitored closely?
- Flumazenil, and monitor blood sugar
B. Naloxone, and monitor the respiratory rate
C. Protamine sulfate, and monitor bleeding
D. Vitamin K, and monitor the INR
Answer: B. Naloxone reverses opioids. Because it wears off quickly, the nurse watches the breathing rate closely in case another dose is needed.
More MCQs in Medical Surgical Nursing (Questions 51 to 65)
- The patient is suffering from an acute asthmatic attack, wheezing, and breathlessness. What will be the priority drug administered by the nurse?
- Oral corticosteroid
B. Inhaled short-acting bronchodilator such as salbutamol
C. Antibiotic
D. Antihistamine
Answer: B. Short-acting bronchodilators cause quick dilation of the airways and act as the primary therapy during an asthma attack.
- What direction is essential for a client having chronic heart failure?
- Weigh yourself daily and report a gain of 2 kg or more
B. Drink extra fluids each day
C. Add more salt to meals
D. Avoid all physical activity
Answer: A. Gain in weight indicates fluid accumulation in the body, and this is the first indicator that heart failure is worsening.
- A patient has sustained a head injury and has increasing intracranial pressure. What position should be used?
- Flat on the back
B. Head of the bed raised about 30 degrees with the head kept midline
C. Trendelenburg
D. Prone
Answer: B. Elevating the head by 30 degrees in the midline allows blood to flow out of the head and decrease the pressure.
- A patient develops generalized seizures. What should be done first by the nurse?
- Hold the client down firmly
B. Put a padded object in the mouth
C. Protect the head, turn the client to the side, and keep the area safe
D. Start chest compressions
Answer: C. The nurse will protect the client from any harm during a seizure and place him on his side to ensure an open airway. Nothing is to be put into the mouth.
- Which finding indicates increased intracranial pressure?
- Rising blood pressure, slow pulse, and irregular breathing
B. Low blood pressure and fast pulse
C. Normal vital signs
D. Fever and rash
Answer: A. High blood pressure with bradycardia and irregular respiration are signs of an increased intracranial pressure.
- A client who was brought to a hospital for suspected appendicitis complains about right lower quadrant pain. What is the nurse not to do?
- Applying a heating pad to the abdomen
B. Keeping the client NPO
C. Monitoring vital signs
D. Reporting a sudden loss of pain
Answer: A. Heat is avoided since it can lead to perforation. Sudden cessation of the pain may be a sign of perforation.
- A client with significant burns is in the first 24 hours after admission. What is the priority in care for him?
- IV fluid replacement
B. A high-protein meal
C. Range of motion exercises
D. Scar care
Answer: A. Large burns result in significant loss of fluids; therefore, fluid resuscitation is the first priority in the first 24 hours to prevent shock.
- The patient with leg cast complains of severe pain, numbness, and tingling which are not relieved by analgesics. What should the nurse do first?
- Reassure the client and wait
B. Notify the physician at once, as this may be compartment syndrome
C. Apply ice and wrap the cast tighter
D. Give more pain medication and recheck in an hour
Answer: B. Such symptoms as severe pain, numbness, and tingling are possible indicators of compartment syndrome which is life-threatening and needs immediate attention.
- A patient with spinal cord injury suffers from a pounding headache, elevated blood pressure, and perspiration. What should the nurse do first?
- Lay the client flat
B. Raise the head of the bed and look for the cause, such as a full bladder
C. Give a sedative
D. Leave the client to rest
Answer: B. Such symptoms indicate the occurrence of autonomic dysreflexia. To lower blood pressure, the patient should be seated upright and the cause removed, typically a full bladder.
- A patient taking rifampin for treatment of tuberculosis needs to be educated on the following effect of the drug:
- Orange-red color of urine, sweat, and tears
B. Blue skin
C. Sudden hearing loss on the first dose
D. Rapid weight gain
Answer: A. Rifampin causes body fluids to turn orange/red, but it is harmless. This must be explained to the patient.
- A client is given oral iron for the treatment of iron deficiency anemia. Which suggestion enhances absorption?
A. Take it with a glass of orange juice
B. Take it with milk
C. Take it with an antacid
D. Take it with tea
Answer: A. Taking vitamin C, as found in orange juice, increases the absorption of iron. Milk, antacids, and tea decrease absorption.
- A client with a sickle cell crisis is admitted due to pain. What are important interventions?
- Fluids, oxygen, and pain control
B. Fluid restriction and cold packs
C. Bed rest with no fluids
D. High-dose iron
Answer: A. Hydration, oxygen therapy, and analgesia are important aspects of management during a sickle cell crisis.
- A client who has recovered from inflammation of the gall bladder asks about dietary information.
- Follow a low-fat diet
B. Eat plenty of fried foods
C. Add extra butter and cream
D. No diet changes are needed
Answer: A. Fatty foods trigger gallbladder pain, so a low-fat diet is recommended.
- Which action best prevents lung complications after surgery?
- Deep breathing and using an incentive spirometer
B. Lying still and breathing shallowly
C. Avoiding all movement
D. Restricting fluids
Answer: A. Deep breathing exercises and an incentive spirometer will keep the lungs open and prevent pneumonia and atelectasis after surgery.
- A patient who had a stroke is having difficulty swallowing. What measures will decrease the risk of aspiration while eating?
- Sit the client fully upright and give small bites at a slow pace
B. Have the client lie back while eating
C. Offer thin liquids quickly
D. Encourage talking while eating
Answer: A. An upright posture and small bites will decrease the risk of food going into the lungs.
More Infection Control and Patient Safety MCQs (Questions 66 to 72)
- Which action helps prevent a catheter-associated urinary tract infection?
- Keep the drainage bag below the level of the bladder
B. Place the bag on the bed beside the client
C. Disconnect the tubing often to check it
D. Hold the bag above the bladder when moving
Answer: A. Placing the bag below the bladder prevents urine from entering the bladder and reduces the chances of infection.
- As the nurse is preparing the sterile field, she observes the border of the sterile field. What will be done about the border of the field?
- As sterile
B. As contaminated
C. As clean but usable
D. As the safest area
Answer: B. The outer 2.5 cm layer of any sterile field is always assumed to be contaminated.
- A client’s wound is infected with MRSA. Which precautions apply?
- Contact precautions with gown and gloves
B. Airborne precautions with an N95
C. No precautions needed
D. Droplet precautions only
Answer: A. Since MRSA is a contact organism, the nurse wears a gown and gloves.
- What can reduce the chances of getting a bloodstream infection from a central line?
- Hand hygiene before manipulating the central line using aseptic techniques
B. Keeping the dressing even if it becomes loose or dirty
C. Keep the line in as long as possible without review
D. Touch the connection points freely
Answer: A. Clean hands and aseptic technique when touching the line is the primary methods of infection prevention.
- A nurse recognizes that a medication was administered incorrectly in dosage. What should be the nurse’s first action?
- Say nothing and watch the client
B. Check the client, then report the error and complete an incident report
C. Chart that the correct dose was given
D. Blame the pharmacy
Answer: B. Safety of the client always comes first; therefore, the nurse examines the client, reports and documents the mistake honestly.
- What high alert drug would require the independent double check by another nurse?
- Insulin
B. Oral vitamins
C. A stool softener
D. A saline flush
Answer: A. Insulin is a high alert drug, which requires the double check of the dosage.
- A nurse is applying sterile dressings to a wound site. Which procedure is mandatory?
- Sterile (surgical asepsis) technique
B. Clean technique only
C. No gloves needed
D. Social hand washing only
Answer: A. The procedure employs surgical asepsis during a sterile dressing change to ensure that no germs will contaminate the wound.
Fundamentals of Nursing Multiple Choice Questions (Questions 73 to 80)
- Which one of the following sets of vital signs is in the normal range for an adult?
- Pulse 78, breathing rate 16, temperature 37 degrees Celsius
B. Pulse 130, breathing rate 30, temperature 39.5 degrees Celsius
C. Pulse 40, breathing rate 8, temperature 35 degrees Celsius
D. Pulse 150, breathing rate 6, temperature 40 degrees Celsius
Answer: A. Normal values of pulse are 60-100, breathing 12-20, and body temperature close to 37 degrees Celsius.
- In what order is the nursing process carried out?
- Assessment, diagnosis, planning, implementation, evaluation
B. Planning, assessment, diagnosis, evaluation, implementation
C. Diagnosis, planning, assessment, implementation, evaluation
D. Implementation, assessment, planning, diagnosis, evaluation
Answer: A. The nursing process includes assessment, diagnosis, planning, implementation, and evaluation, represented by ADPIE.
- What is the frequency at which the bed-bound patient should be repositioned?
- At least every 2 hours
B. Once per shift
C. Only when the client asks
D. Every 8 hours
Answer: A. Rotating the client at least every 2 hours helps in relieving pressure and prevents skin breakdown.
- In the process of lifting a heavy object, the nurse is advised to:
- Bend from the knee position with the load close to the body
B. Bend from the waist position with straight legs
C. Twist the back while lifting
D. Maintain the load at arm’s length
Answer: A. Bending your knees and holding the load close to the body helps prevent back injuries.
- Which symptom indicates that the client is developing dehydration?
- Low urine output with dark, concentrated urine
B. Moist skin and pink lips
C. Large amounts of clear, pale urine
D. A steady body weight
Answer: A. A low output of dark urine is a common early sign of dehydration.
- A client is using home oxygen. Which safety instruction is most important?
- Keep smoking and open flames away from the oxygen
B. Store the tank next to a heater
C. Use petroleum jelly on the lips
D. Cover the tank with a heavy blanket
Answer: A. Since oxygen promotes combustion, smoking and any sources of flames should be avoided near the oxygen tank.
- What is the proper method of recording nursing care?
- Record accurate, objective facts soon after care is given
B. Chart care before it is done to save time
C. Add personal opinions about the client
D. Leave blank spaces to fill in later
Aswer: A. Proper documentation is accurate, objective, and done right after the care is rendered and not in advance.
- In order to avoid aspiration, where would you position the client while undergoing tube feeding?
A. Head of the bed raised at least 30 to 45 degrees
B. Flat on the back
C. Flat on the left side
D. Prone
Answer: A. Maintaining the head in an elevated position while feeding and thereafter prevents regurgitation of the feed that may enter the lungs.
Maternal and Child Health MCQs (Questions 81 to 88)
- What is the usual fetal heart rate?
A. 60 to 100 beats per minute
B. 110 to 160 beats per minute
C. 170 to 200 beats per minute
D. 40 to 80 beats per minute
Answer: B. The normal fetal heart rate is 110 to 160 beats per minute.
- A pregnant patient with preeclampsia is being given magnesium sulfate. Which of the following is an indication for stopping the infusion?
A. Absent deep tendon reflexes and slow breathing
B. A mild headache
C. Normal urine output
D. Blood pressure of 130/80
Answer: A. The loss of reflexes and slow breathing is indicative of magnesium toxicity, hence the infusion is stopped, and the antidote, calcium gluconate, is prepared.
- A postpartum patient is experiencing profuse vaginal bleeding and a boggy uterus. What is the first priority for the nurse?
A. Massage the uterine fundus
B. Offer oral fluids
C. Place the client flat and wait
D. Encourage the client to walk
Answer: A. A soft uterus causes bleeding after birth, so firm fundal massage is the first action to help it contract.
- At which times is a newborn’s APGAR score assessed?
A. At 1 and 5 minutes after birth
B. At 10 and 20 minutes after birth
C. Only once at birth
D. At 1 hour and 2 hours after birth
Answer: A. APGAR is scored at 1 and 5 minutes after birth to check the newborn’s condition.
- To lower the risk of sudden infant death, the nurse teaches parents to place the baby to sleep:
A. On the back
B. On the stomach
C. On the side propped with pillows
D. Sitting up
Answer: A. Babies should be placed on their back to sleep to lower the risk of sudden infant death syndrome.
- Which sign best indicates dehydration in an infant?
A. A sunken fontanelle and dry mouth with fewer wet diapers
B. A bulging fontanelle
C. Heavy, very wet diapers
D. Moist lips and steady weight
Answer: A. A sunken soft spot, dry mouth, and fewer wet diapers are key signs of dehydration in an infant.
- A parent asks about childhood vaccines. What is the best teaching point?
A. Vaccines protect the child and the community from serious diseases
B. Vaccines are only needed after the child starts school
C. Natural infection is always safer than vaccines
D. Vaccines cause the diseases they prevent
Answer: A. Vaccines help protect not only the child but everyone around them by protecting against diseases.
- The mother of an exclusively breastfed baby asks how she can know that her baby is receiving enough milk. Choose the correct answer:
A. Six or more wet diapers per day and weight gain
B. The baby sleeps all day and rarely feeds
C. No wet diapers for 12 hours
D. Constant crying right after every feed
Answer: A. Frequent wet diapers and continuous weight gain indicate that the infant is well-nourished.
Mental Health Nursing MCQs (Questions 89 to 95)
- A client expresses, “I feel like I am not understood.” The best therapeutic response will be:
A. “Tell me more about your feelings.”
B. “Everybody has those feelings sometimes.”
C. “You should not have such feelings.”
D. “Why don’t we discuss something else?”
Answer: A. A positive response will make the client discuss his/her feelings in detail.
- A client expresses having suicidal tendencies. What is the priority for the nurse?
A. Ensure the client’s safety and provide close observation
B. Leave the client alone to rest
C. Tell the client to think positively
D. Wait until the next shift to act
Answer: A. Safety is the first concern of the patient in danger of harming himself, so ensuring a safe setting and careful observation are first and foremost.
- A patient admitted for detoxification from alcohol shows signs of being shaky and agitated 48 hours after his last alcoholic beverage. What type of drugs are usually given?
A. Benzodiazepines
B. Opioids
C. Stimulants
D. Iron supplements
Answer: A. Benzodiazepines are the typical medication used to manage alcohol withdrawal and avoid complications like seizures.
- The client experiencing severe anxiety is having extreme tunnel vision and is unable to follow directions. What nursing strategy should be employed?
A. Stay with the client and speak calmly using short, simple sentences
B. Give detailed teaching right away
C. Leave the client alone
D. Ask many questions quickly
Answer: A. In severe anxiety the client cannot take in much, so the nurse stays present and uses calm, simple communication.
- A client on lithium has nausea, tremor, and slurred speech. What should the nurse suspect?
A. Lithium toxicity
B. Normal side effects only
C. Low blood sugar
D. A drug allergy
Answer: A. Nausea, tremors, and slurred speech indicate lithium toxicity, and the drug level must be assessed immediately. Proper fluid and electrolyte balance help maintain lithium levels.
- A patient has been prescribed an SSRI antidepressant. What is an appropriate teaching point?
A. The full effect may take several weeks
B. It works within a few hours
C. Stop taking the drug once you start feeling well
D. Double your dosage when you miss a dose
Answer: A. It takes several weeks for SSRIs to become fully effective, therefore the client needs to continue taking them and not stop immediately.
- The client during manic phase is not eating due to inability to stay in one place. Which nursing action would be most appropriate?
A. Provide the client with food that he or she could consume on the go
B. Make the client sit down to eat
C. Withhold food until the client calms down
D. Serve only liquids
Answer: A. Finger foods and high-calorie snacks allow the client to eat while on the move and meet their requirements during mania.
Community Health and Patient Teaching MCQs (Questions 96 to 100)
- Which of the following is an example of primary prevention?
A. Vaccination of a healthy child
B. Screening for high blood pressure
C. Rehabilitation after a stroke
D. For treating an already established infection
Answer: A. Primary prevention is concerned with preventing disease from occurring in the first place, and vaccination is a good example of this.
- A diabetic patient experiences shaking, sweating, and dizziness. What does the nurse suggest initially?
A. Take quick-acting sugar such as fruit juice or glucose tablets
B. Go for a long walk
C. Take an extra dose of insulin
D. Wait for the feeling to pass
Answer: A. These are signs of low blood sugar, so a fast-acting sugar is given right away to raise the level.
- A client taking warfarin should be taught to:
A. Keep a steady intake of green leafy vegetables and report any unusual bleeding
B. Eat large, changing amounts of leafy greens
C. Take extra aspirin for headaches
D. Ignore minor bleeding
Answer: A. A steady vitamin K intake keeps warfarin working evenly, and any unusual bleeding should be reported.
- A client is prescribed a 7-day course of antibiotics. What is the correct teaching?
A. Finish the full course even if you feel better
B. Stop as soon as symptoms improve
C. Save some tablets for next time
D. Share the tablets with family
Answer: A. Taking the complete course of treatment cures the infection and also prevents antibiotic resistance.
- What is the indicator that the client has understood the teachings regarding low-sodium intake?
A. “I will not consume canned soups and highly processed foods.”
B. “I am free to use more table salt on my food.”
C. “Pickles and chips are safe for daily consumption.”
D. “The amount of sodium intake does not matter to my condition.”
Answer: A. This indicates the client has understood the teachings regarding low-sodium intake.
Why Prepare With Tiju’s Academy?
Working through 100 questions is a strong start, but real Prometric test preparation means practicing thousands of them with expert guidance. That is what we provide. Tiju’s Academy Prometric Coaching is trusted by nurses across the state, and many call us the best Saudi Prometric Coaching Centre in Kerala for one simple reason. Our methods are built for busy working nurses.
Here is what you get with us:
Mnemomap: notes rich in mnemonic tips for quick and easy learning and retrieval.
Heptadeca-15 and Heptadeca-50: full coverage of all 17 nursing care systems in 15 days or a longer 50-day version.
Opticortex Lectures: visual-based learning that makes hard concepts simple.
Centurion-200: more than 200 full-length mock tests in the real exam pattern for time and accuracy management.
Vigil-Desk: 24 by 7 doubt-clearing support, so no question waits until morning.
Stem-Dissect: tutor-assisted question paper discussion with a clear explanation for every answer.
Flexi-Chrono: flexible morning and evening batches for working professionals in online mode.
Our classes run both online and offline at our Thiruvalla branch, and every online session is recorded for unlimited revision. The whole curriculum is simplified and lined up with MOH, DOH, DHA, and Prometric standards, so you study only what the exam asks. If you cannot travel, our Prometric online coaching in kerala brings the same tutors and the same mock tests to your screen.
Do not risk a costly retake. Join Tiju’s Academy and prepare the smart way.
